Even as Peter was saying these things, the Holy Spirit fell upon all who were listening to the message. [Acts 10.44]
First off, I need to point out that "these things" referred to above are that Jesus was crucified and resurrected, was appointed by God, and all who believe in Him will be forgiven. Nowhere in Peter's message was anything said about the Holy Spirit. In fact, it seems the Holy Spirit surprised Peter by showing up.
Why then, in yesterday's reading, at the preaching of Philip, did the folks in Samaria not automatically receive the Holy Spirit? And yet, great signs and miracles were taking place before Peter and John came on the scene and prayed for them to receive the Holy Spirit. Why did the Holy Spirit require Peter and John to pray and lay hands on the people in order to receive His infilling? Was it because they were not Jews?
Philip, Peter, and John were all part of the twelve original disciples of Jesus. All three were present when the Holy Spirit fell on the Day of Pentecost. Why then, did the Holy Spirit come automatically on those who believed Peter's message at Cornelius' house but not on those who believed Philip's message? What was it about that "...they had only been baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus" (Acts 8.16)? Was Philip doing something wrong? If so, why were great signs and miracles being allowed to take place through his ministry?
To further confound this, Peter is on record beforehand in Acts 2.38-39 of having said the following: Peter replied, “Each of you must repent of your sins and turn to God, and be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins. Then you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit. This promise is to you, to your children, and to those far away—all who have been called by the Lord our God.”
So, does the Holy Spirit require something more than believing the Good News or not?
Father, this is one of those days that I have no only speculation as to what has taken place and why.
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