Why Was This Man Born Blind?

As Jesus was walking along, he saw a man who had been blind from birth. “Rabbi,” his disciples asked him, “why was this man born blind? Was it because of his own sins or his parents’ sins?” “It was not because of his sins or his parents’ sins,” Jesus answered. “This happened so the power of God could be seen in him. We must quickly carry out the tasks assigned us by the one who sent us. The night is coming, and then no one can work. But while I am here in the world, I am the light of the world.” [John 9.1-5]

I think there is much here in what Jesus was recorded by John to have said that requires unbiased and objective attention. I am going to attempt to point out some facts instead of dogmatically making any claims as to what Jesus meant.

Why was the man born blind? Modern medicine and science would indicate that it was so because of some birth defect or prenatal disease. However, before modern medicine, mankind largely accepted that sin caused sickness and disease. This is precisely what is indicated here in Jesus' disciples question "why" being understood that it was 'sin' but they just didn't know 'whose' sin.

Jesus' answer to the disciples' question must have been somewhat a shocker as He answered, "neither." It could be understood then that Jesus was indicating the blindness was not linked to sin - but was that the case? Depending on how one understands this, it could be made to look like God would use sickness to glorify Himself. The problem with this understanding is that all sickness is attached to sin (read Deuteronomy) and therefore it could be further questioned as to God's motive in creating sin to glorify Himself. To even further expound upon this, it would be like saying God wanted man to disobey so He could punish him. There are basic problems with this assumption that blatantly stand in contrast to the bulk of Scripture's description of God and His loving AND just nature.

There is more confusing dialog following!

The "power of God..." mentioned in this passage would logically be referring to healing the man. Also, the "tasks assigned us..." would be one and the same. Jesus referred to the "night" coming and then declared Himself the "light of the world" which I would think implied He was the 'day.' If healing is only for the time when the light is with mankind (Jesus' physical presence on earth), then we are now living in darkness and cannot claim "Christ in us" as the Apostle Paul did.

However, if Jesus' qualifier "while I am here..." could be interpreted that during His duration, He is the light, but afterwards, His followers are the light (consistent with the 'Christ in us' idea), then it could be concluded that we are still under the "quickly carry out the tasks..." time-frame of this dialog and must view sickness as something to be sought out and eradicated through prayer!

I am left with many more questions from this passage than answers.

Father, I really would like to better understand this passage of Scripture.