Then Judah said to Er’s brother Onan, “Go and marry Tamar, as our law requires of the brother of a man who has died. You must produce an heir for your brother.” [Genesis 38.8]
Just what law was Judah referring to since the Law of Moses had not yet been given?
As best I can tell. this is only the third usage of the word "law" (in English) in the New Living Translation. However, the first two uses are for familial relationship description. "in-law" so this is the first actually referring to prescribed law.
Up to this point, we have seen references to "customs" associated with particular groups. Laban used this reference to say he could not allow Rachel to marry before firstborn Leah.
Did customs eventually become law?
It might also be interesting to consider that Judah referred to "our" law as if it might have been unique to their family/clan.
The Apostle Paul wrote this:
Yes, people sinned even before the law was given. But it was not counted as sin because there was not yet any law to break. [Romans 5.13]
Hmm.
Adam sinned by breaking God's commandment to not eat of a certain fruit. Was that not a "law" of sorts?
There is more to learn about this!
Father, help me to consider the "law" as it related to Moses and the time before Moses. Help me to understand how this works!
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