The LORD said to Moses, “Give the following instructions to the people of Israel. If a woman becomes pregnant and gives birth to a son, she will be ceremonially unclean for seven days, just as she is unclean during her menstrual period. On the eighth day the boy’s foreskin must be circumcised. After waiting thirty-three days, she will be purified from the bleeding of childbirth. During this time of purification, she must not touch anything that is set apart as holy. And she must not enter the sanctuary until her time of purification is over. If a woman gives birth to a daughter, she will be ceremonially unclean for two weeks, just as she is unclean during her menstrual period. After waiting sixty-six days, she will be purified from the bleeding of childbirth. [Leviticus 12.1-5]
Years ago, a dear friend had serious questions about the fairness of a woman being declared ceremonially unclean twice as long for a newborn girl as for a newborn boy. I don't know if my understanding today is right or wrong, but it is worth considering.
Today, it stood out to me that "not fair" may not really apply to this as much as "not the same."
Any dedicated mother is soon well aware of the responsibilities of raising a child.
With a female child, the mother is unclean for two weeks. With a male child the mother is unclean only a week. However, with the male child there is something very different: circumcision.
If there is any 'justice' in the difference between the mother's ceremonial condition after bearing a female versus a male, it might just be this. Just because the mother may be declared 'clean' after seven days with the male child, she enters a heightened emotional time and role because her baby boy is circumcised. This means the foreskin of his penis is cut off with a sharp knife. The procedure is routine (even in Biblical times), but there remains a time of healing... probably about another week.
As for the double time required for purification after giving birth to a girl, I can only speculate, but I would guess it has to do with this same circumcision difference. There is, no doubt, emotional pain for the mother in submitting her male child for circumcision. Does this change something physiologically in her? Maybe? We all know the human body does some amazing things. Does the circumcision event trigger something in the mother? I don't know - it might.
Here is the conclusion of my speculations: Whether or not there are physiological things that actually make a difference in the mother's body, circumcision is a sign of covenant. In the grand scheme of things, it is not unusual that God would make a distinction highlighting this fact. I don't think it was to punish the mother for giving birth to a girl, but more to point out the fact that circumcision needs to be recognized for the relationship with God it signifies!
Father, help me to understand more of Your Word.
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